Magebane & Dispel

[Teclis]

When I played against a warlock today my mage had Magebane attached.

It reads: Each time this creature casts and resolves a spell, it receives 1 direct damage.

As this is very annoying, I wanted to destroy it with a Dispel. Question: Is the direct damage dealt for the cast Dispel or not? Both triggers are simultaneous, aren't they?

[sIKE]

Had the same exact question Tuesday!  :unsure:

[Koy]

I do believe you take the damage, as the Dispel must resolve before it can destroy the Magebane.  And if a spell resolves, Magebane pokes you.  Then dispel pokes back.

[Teclis]

That's how we did it. Just wanted to clear things up...

[sIKE]

That is how we played it too, I disagreed though, as both say when you resolve the spell. My understanding is when you have a tie it would go to the Mage taking the action and it then would be the favorable outcome to the caster.

Am I off base for thinking this way?

[DarthDadaD20]

Well, new enchantments take priority over the old ones,(ex: one that takes away flying first, then one that gives flying second, the creature would have flying) But that wouldn't apply here. I would say this: Who ever has Initiative would decide a timing issues, and this is one.

[sIKE]

Exactly! And the ruling from Arcanus is? Would like to pin this one down before game day tommorow!

[DarthDadaD20]

I'm 99% that this is a timing issue and that it would be the player with Initiative who decides which effect takes place first. Just one more reason why I never pass that initiative marker! :evil:

[Arcanus]

Yes, you do take the damage.

[DarthDadaD20]

Oh, well then. I would of thought since they happen during the same time,and being the same step(Step 3). it would be a timing issue. It makes sense though,dispel resolves, you take the damage,then it is destroyed. Thanks Arcanus.

[Teclis]

Yes, you do take the damage.

Allright, then it is official!
Thanks Arcanus.

[Shad0w]

Lets see who can explain why.  

[DarthDadaD20]

Because a spell is technically resolved and then takes effect.(That and Resolve is a step) I was thinking that magebane wouldn't take affect until after step 3 was over, but it must do the damage immediately after step 2 at the very beginning of step 3. right before spell takes effect, but after it is resolved. I think I may of been over thinking it, since in play if we did this, we always took the damage. That and it makes perfect sense if you read the steps. Step 3:The spell is resolved and then takes effect. I can have my durp moments! That and Im just trying to find a timing issue, since I have yet to come across one.

[Shad0w]

I am giving time for everybody to chime in

[Koy]

Well, the build-up by Shad0w is now making me think I'm missing something, but it just seems to make sense that:

1)  Magebane is in play, and any time that target mage casts and resolves a spell, they take a point of DD.

2)  Dispel is cast, which immediately fulfills the pre-existing condition of #1.  

3)  It can't dispel without damage, because it has to resolve before doing so.

I think it comes down to Magebane being a pre-existing effect.